New (2025) CompTIA 220-1202 Exam Dumps
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NEW QUESTION # 71
A technician is setting up a Windows server to allow remote desktop connections for multiple users. Which of the following should the technician configure on the workstation?
- A. User Accounts
- B. Firewall
- C. Ease of Access
- D. Computer Management
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
To allow Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) access, the firewall must be configured to allow inbound connections on TCP port 3389. If the Windows Firewall blocks RDP, users will not be able to connect remotely even if the feature is enabled in system settings.
B: Computer Management allows configuration of services and local users, but not network access.
C: User Accounts is for account setup and control, but enabling remote access requires firewall configuration.
D: Ease of Access is unrelated to remote connectivity-it's for accessibility features.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast security measures and firewall settings.
Study Guide Section: Enabling and securing RDP via firewall settings
NEW QUESTION # 72
A technician needs to map a shared drive from a command-line interface. Which of the following commands should the technician use?
- A. nslookup
- B. pathping
- C. net use
- D. tracert
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The net use command in Windows is used to map (assign) a shared drive from the command line. The syntax typically looks like: net use X: \server\share where X is the drive letter and \server\share is the network path.
A: pathping tests network latency and packet loss.
B: nslookup is used for DNS troubleshooting.
D: tracert shows the route packets take to reach a destination - not for drive mapping.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common operating system problems.
Study Guide Section: Command-line tools - net use for drive mapping
NEW QUESTION # 73
A technician needs to configure laptops so that only administrators can enable virtualization technology if needed. Which of the following should the technician configure?
- A. AutoRun setting
- B. BIOS password
- C. Screen lock
- D. Guest account
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Virtualization settings are typically found within the BIOS/UEFI firmware configuration. To prevent unauthorized users from changing these settings, the technician should set a BIOS password. This ensures only administrators with the password can access or modify BIOS settings, including virtualization support.
B: The guest account is a user-level feature in Windows and doesn't control BIOS access.
C: A screen lock prevents casual access to the desktop but doesn't protect firmware settings.
D: AutoRun controls how media and devices behave when inserted - unrelated to BIOS security.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast security measures and administrative controls.
Study Guide Section: BIOS/UEFI settings protection - password implementation
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NEW QUESTION # 74
A user's application only works with a legacy version of the OS. The OS is reaching its end-of-life date. For security reasons, the company is migrating to the current version of the OS. Which of the following is the most efficient way to complete the migration while maintaining accessibility to the application?
- A. Virtualization
- B. Terminal server
- C. Multiboot
- D. Bare-metal server
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Virtualizationallows the legacy OS to be run in a virtual machine (VM) on top of the newer OS. This method provides backward compatibility without requiring outdated operating systems on physical hardware.
FromQuentin Docter - CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:
"Using virtualization is a preferred method when legacy applications are needed after migrating to newer operating systems. It allows legacy environments to exist securely within a modern OS framework."
NEW QUESTION # 75
A company executive is currently attending a major music festival with a large number of attendees and is having trouble accessing a work email account. The email application is not downloading emails and also appears to become stuck during connection attempts. Which of the following is most likely causing the disruption?
- A. Too many devices in the same area are trying to connect to the mobile network.
- B. The phone has no storage space available.
- C. Company firewalls are configured to block remote access to email resources.
- D. The festival organizer prohibits internet usage during the event and has blocked the internet signal
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
At large events such as music festivals, cellular towers may become congested due to the high volume of users attempting to connect simultaneously. This congestion causes slow or failed data connections, which explains the email application being unable to sync or connect. This is a common real-world mobile connectivity issue in crowded areas.
A: Lack of storage would prevent saving attachments, not prevent connection attempts.
B: Company firewalls usually don't affect mobile access unless specific device restrictions are enforced.
D: Organizers do not have the ability to block the internet signal; only carriers manage mobile bandwidth.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.3: Troubleshoot mobile OS and connectivity issues.
Study Guide Section: Mobile network limitations - signal congestion and bandwidth issues
NEW QUESTION # 76
An administrator received an email stating that the OS they are currently supporting will no longer be issued security updates and patches. Which of the following is most likely the reason the administrator received this message?
- A. Support from the computer's manufacturer is expiring
- B. The built-in security software is being removed from the next OS version
- C. The OS will be considered end of life
- D. A new version of the OS will be released soon
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
When an OS reaches its end of life (EOL), it no longer receives updates or support, including critical security patches.
From the Quentin Docter Study Guide:
"End-of-life means the manufacturer no longer supports the OS with updates or security patches, which exposes systems to vulnerabilities unless upgraded".
All-in-One Exam Guide adds:
"End-of-life notifications serve as a final warning that continued use of the OS will be insecure and unsupported. It's crucial for administrators to plan migration".
NEW QUESTION # 77
A company recently transitioned to a cloud-based productivity suite and wants to secure the environment from external threat actors. Which of the following is the most effective method?
- A. Multifactor authentication
- B. Encryption
- C. Backups
- D. Strong passwords
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Multifactor authentication (MFA) is considered one of the most effective security measures for cloud environments. It requires users to verify their identity using two or more factors (e.g., password + phone app code), making it significantly harder for external attackers to gain access, even if the primary password is compromised.
B: Encryption is important for data protection but doesn't prevent unauthorized logins.
C: Backups protect against data loss but don't stop breaches.
D: Strong passwords are helpful but can still be phished or cracked - MFA adds a critical extra layer.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast authentication technologies.
Study Guide Section: Cloud security best practices - MFA and access control
NEW QUESTION # 78
Why would a network engineering team provide a help desk technician with IP addresses for a wired network segment?
- A. The network allow list is set to a specific address.
- B. DHCP is not enabled for this subnet.
- C. Only specific DNS servers are allowed outbound.
- D. NAC servers only allow security updates to be installed.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When DHCP isn't enabled, static IPs must be assigned manually, so the engineering team provides the IP details.
FromTravis Everett - All-in-One Exam Guide:
"If DHCP is unavailable, technicians need the static IP configuration to connect devices to the network." .
NEW QUESTION # 79
A secretary receives an email from the CEO requesting immediate vendor payment. Later, the CEO says they never sent it. Which social engineering tactic is this?
- A. Evil twin
- B. Impersonation
- C. Spear phishing
- D. Whaling
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Spear phishingtargets a specific individual using personalized tactics, as seen in emails impersonating a CEO to deceive a secretary.
FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:
"Spear phishing targets specific individuals or roles within an organization using tailored messages to increase success rates."
NEW QUESTION # 80
Which of the following file types would a desktop support technician most likely use to automate tasks for a Windows user log-in?
- A. .py
- B. .bat
- C. .sh
- D. .js
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A: .bat file (batch file) is a script file in DOS, OS/2, and Microsoft Windows. It contains a series of commands that are executed by the command-line interpreter. In Windows environments, batch files are commonly used to automate log-in tasks, such as mapping network drives, launching applications, or setting environment variables during the user's logon process.
B: .sh is a shell script used in Linux/Unix environments.
C: .py is a Python script, which can be used for automation but is not commonly run directly at user logon in standard Windows environments.
D: .js is JavaScript, used mainly in web development and not for system-level scripting in Windows logon automation.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.3: Use appropriate Microsoft operating system features and tools.
Study Guide Section: Scripting basics and file types for automation - .bat for Windows
NEW QUESTION # 81
A help desk technician needs to remove RAM from retired workstations and upgrade other workstations that have applications that use more memory with this RAM. Which of the following actions would the technician most likely take?
- A. Use antistatic bags for storage and transport.
- B. Install memory in identical pairs.
- C. Demagnetize memory for security.
- D. Plug in the power supply to ground each workstation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
RAM is an electrostatic-sensitive component. When removing or transporting RAM modules, they should be stored in antistatic bags to protect against electrostatic discharge (ESD), which can damage the memory. This is a standard best practice in hardware handling.
A: Demagnetization is not applicable to RAM.
C: Plugging in power to ground is not safe or recommended for static protection.
D: Installing identical memory pairs is applicable for dual-channel configuration, but not directly related to transporting or handling RAM.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 4.3: Explain environmental impacts and procedures.
Study Guide Section: ESD safety practices and component handling procedures
NEW QUESTION # 82
A technician needs to change hibernation settings on a Windows computer via a batch file. Domain policies are unavailable. Which is the best method?
- A. Use Power Options in Control Panel
- B. Update the computer's firmware
- C. Run gpupdate from command prompt
- D. Use the powercfg command in PowerShell
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Thepowercfg commandis a built-in utility for controlling power settings including hibernation. It can be used in scripts and does not require domain access.
FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:
"The powercfg command provides granular control of power settings, useful for scripting and configuring systems without Group Policy access."
NEW QUESTION # 83
The screen of a previously working computer repeatedly displays an OS Not Found error message when the computer is started. Only a USB drive, a keyboard, and a mouse are plugged into the computer. Which of the following should a technician do first?
- A. Run data recovery tools on the disk
- B. Check boot options
- C. Partition the disk using the GPT format
- D. Switch from UEFI to BIOS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
An "OS Not Found" error typically indicates that the computer is attempting to boot from a drive that doesn't contain a valid operating system or bootable partition. The presence of a USB drive might be confusing the boot order. Therefore, the first step a technician should take is to verify and adjust the boot sequence in the system's firmware (BIOS or UEFI). It's possible that the USB drive is being prioritized over the internal hard drive, which may cause the system to miss the OS entirely.
A: Running data recovery tools is premature before confirming boot order.
B: Repartitioning the disk would destroy existing data-this should not be done until confirmed the OS is actually missing.
D: Switching between UEFI and BIOS (legacy mode) might help in rare cases, but it is not the first step in standard OS boot issue troubleshooting.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.7: Troubleshoot common operating system problems.
Study Guide Section: Boot process and boot order configuration.
NEW QUESTION # 84
A Chief Executive Officer wants to meet with remote employees in a way that will allow for communication and training. Which of the following software technologies is the best for this situation?
- A. Videoconferencing
- B. Virtual desktop infrastructure
- C. Screen sharing
- D. Remote Desktop
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Videoconferencingplatforms allow real-time face-to-face communication and are ideal for collaborative training sessions involving remote employees.
FromQuentin Docter - CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:
"Videoconferencing tools such as Zoom or Microsoft Teams are specifically designed for real-time communication and training, making them ideal for executive or large-group meetings."
NEW QUESTION # 85
An organization sees unauthorized apps installed and licensing prompts. What should the security team do?
- A. Implement stronger controls to block suspicious websites.
- B. Enable stricter UAC settings on Windows.
- C. Deploy an internal PKI to filter encrypted web traffic.
- D. Remove users from the local admin group.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Removing users from thelocal admin groupprevents them from installing unauthorized software.
FromQuentin Docter - Complete Study Guide:
"Local admin privileges allow users to install unauthorized apps. Removing them from this group restricts installations and helps prevent malware." .
NEW QUESTION # 86
An administrator is investigating a zero-day vulnerability. If left unpatched, it could severely impact business.
The patch requires downtime. What should the administrator do?
- A. Implement an emergency change.
- B. Immediately freeze all changes.
- C. Continue operations until the next change interval.
- D. Create a standard change request.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Azero-day vulnerabilitydemands an emergency change to quickly secure the system, even if downtime is needed.
FromMike Meyers' Lab Manual:
"Emergency changes bypass standard scheduling to quickly address critical vulnerabilities that pose immediate risks." .
NEW QUESTION # 87
A user recently installed an application that accesses a database from a local server. When launching the application, it does not populate any information. Which of the following command-line tools is the best to troubleshoot the issue?
- A. ipconfig
- B. nslookup
- C. curl
- D. netstat
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The scenario involves an application that should retrieve data from a local database server but is failing to do so. This likely indicates a problem in communication between the application and the database server (such as a network issue, port misconfiguration, or service unavailability). The correct troubleshooting approach involves testing the network/service connectivity between the client and the database.
Let's examine the options:
* A. ipconfig:This command displays IP configuration details for Windows systems, such as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. While useful for diagnosing general networkissues, it does not test service connectivity or the availability of a specific application port/service.
* B. nslookup:Used to query DNS servers to resolve domain names to IP addresses. However, since the question references a local server (likely accessed via IP or static hostname), DNS is probably not involved. Also, it does not test application/service availability.
* C. netstat:Displays active TCP connections, listening ports, and routing tables. It helps determine whether the local system is listening for or maintaining any network connections, but it does not initiate a connection to test availability. It's diagnostic but not interactive for service testing.
* D. curl:This is the most appropriate tool for this scenario. curl is used to test connectivity to services over protocols like HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, and more. If the application retrieves data via a web interface or API (common in database-driven applications), curl can be used to test if the application can successfully reach and retrieve data from the server. It provides immediate, testable feedback on whether the server and service are available and responsive.
Example usage:
curlhttp://localhost:8080/api/data
This command would test whether a local server's application programming interface (API) is available and responding on port 8080.
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:
* Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to troubleshoot and support Windows OS issues.
* Objective 3.3: Use appropriate tools to troubleshoot and resolve issues.
* The CompTIA A+ Core 2 study guide references curl as a useful command-line utility for testing connectivity and troubleshooting application access to services.
NEW QUESTION # 88
What is the next step a technician should take after completing malware cleanup?
- A. Review system logs
- B. Perform a secondary antivirus scan
- C. Reimage the computer
- D. Educate the end user
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Once the system is cleaned, the next priority is toeducate the useron safe practices to prevent recurrence.
FromQuentin Docter - CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:
"Post-malware remediation should include user education to prevent reinfection and identify how the malware was introduced."
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following malware types typically has very high computing resource usage?
- A. Rootkit
- B. Cryptominer
- C. Boot sector virus
- D. Trojan
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Cryptominersexploit system resources to mine cryptocurrency, often without user consent, leading to high CPU and GPU usage.
FromQuentin Docter - CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:
"Cryptomining malware can cause significant performance degradation by monopolizing system resources like CPU and GPU to mine digital currency."
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which of the following is the best reason for a network engineering team to provide a help desk technician with IP addressing information to use on workstations being deployed in a secure network segment?
- A. The network allow list is set to a specific address.
- B. DHCP services are not enabled for this subnet.
- C. Only specific DNS servers are allowed outbound access.
- D. NAC servers only allow for security updates to be installed.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
In secure or isolated network segments, DHCP may be disabled to reduce the risk of unauthorized device connections or to maintain strict IP assignment control. In such cases, the help desk technician must manually configure IP settings (including IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS servers). This ensures the workstation communicates properly within that segment.
A: DNS server restriction is unrelated to manual IP configuration.
B: Allow lists refer to traffic access, but manual IP assignment is due to lack of DHCP, not allow lists.
D: NAC servers control access but don't replace the need for IP addressing.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common operating system and network issues.
Study Guide Section: IP configuration and DHCP-related deployment scenarios
NEW QUESTION # 91
A small office reported a phishing attack that resulted in a malware infection. A technician is investigating the incident and has verified the following:
# All endpoints are updated and have the newest EDR signatures.
# Logs confirm that the malware was quarantined by EDR on one system.
# The potentially infected machine was reimaged.
Which of the following actions should the technician take next?
- A. Discuss the cause of the issue and educate the end user about security hygiene
- B. Suggest alternate preventative controls that would include more advanced security software
- C. Flash the firmware of the router to ensure the integrity of network traffic
- D. Install network security tools to prevent downloading infected files from the internet
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
After containment and remediation, one of the final steps in incident response is user education. Since the root cause was a phishing attack, it is essential to educate users about identifying phishing attempts, safe browsing practices, and how to handle suspicious communications. This improves overall security posture and helps prevent future incidents.
A: Installing additional tools may be helpful but is a long-term step.
C: Flashing router firmware is not warranted unless the network hardware is known to be compromised.
D: Suggesting more advanced tools might be excessive given that the EDR successfully contained the incident.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.5: Given a scenario, detect, remove, and prevent malware using appropriate tools and methods.
Study Guide Section: Incident response and user education after a security event
NEW QUESTION # 92
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