View All JN0-336 Actual Exam Questions, Answers and Explanations for Free
JN0-336 Exam Free Practice Test with100% Accurate Answers
NEW QUESTION # 25
Click the Exhibit button.
Which two statements about the log output shown in the exhibit are correct? (Choose two?
- A. AppTrack is enabled on the untrust zone
- B. Traffic destined to the HTTP server is placed in an IPsec tunnel
- C. Source NAT is performed
- D. AppTrack is enabled on the trost zone:
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which sequence does an SRX Series device use when implementing stateful session security policies using Layer 3 routes?
- A. An SRX Series device will conduct a longest-match Layer 3 route table lookup before performing a security policy search.
- B. An SRX Series device conducts an ALG security check on the longest-match route before performing a security policy search.
- C. An SRX Series device performs a security policy search before implementing an ALG security check on the longest-match Layer 3 route.
- D. An SRX Series device will perform a security policy search before conducting a longest-match Layer 3 route table lookup.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The sequence that an SRX Series device uses when implementing stateful session security policies using Layer 3 routes is:
An SRX Series device will conduct a longest-match Layer 3 route table lookup before performing a security policy search: When an SRX Series device receives a packet, it first looks up the destination IP address in the routing table and finds the longest matching route to forward the packet. Then, it performs a security policy search based on the source zone, destination zone, source address, destination address, protocol, and application of the packet. If there is a matching policy that allows the packet, it creates or updates a session entry for the packet and applies any security services configured in the policy.
Reference: = [Security Policies Overview], [Security Policy Processing Overview]
NEW QUESTION # 27
How does Juniper ATP Cloud protect a network from zero-day threats?
- A. It uses known virus signatures.
- B. It uses antivirus software.
- C. It uses a cache lookup.
- D. It uses dynamic analysis.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Juniper ATP Cloud is a cloud-based service that provides advanced threat prevention and detection for your network. It integrates with SRX Series firewalls and MX Series routers to analyze files and network traffic for signs of malicious activity. Juniper ATP Cloud protects a network from zero-day threats by using dynamic analysis, which is a method of executing files in a sandbox environment and observing their behavior and network interactions. Dynamic analysis can uncover unknown malware that may evade static analysis or signature-based detection methods.
Reference: = Juniper Advanced Threat Prevention - Juniper Networks, Juniper Advanced Threat Prevention Datasheet, Juniper Advanced Threat Prevention | NetworkScreen.com
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which statement about security policy schedulers is correct?
- A. A policy without a defined scheduler will not become active
- B. Multiple policies can use the same scheduler.
- C. A policy can have multiple schedulers.
- D. When the scheduler is disabled, the policy will still be available.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Schedulers can be defined and reused by multiple policies, allowing for more efficient management of policy activation and deactivation. This can be particularly useful for policies that need to be activated during specific time periods, such as business hours or maintenance windows.
NEW QUESTION # 29
You administer a JSA host and want to include a rule that sets a threshold for excessive firewall denies and sends an SNMP trap after receiving related syslog messages from an SRX Series firewall.
Which JSA rule type satisfies this requirement?
- A. common
- B. event
- C. flow
- D. offense
Answer: D
Explanation:
An offense rule in JSA is designed to aggregate multiple events or log entries based on specified criteria into a single offense, which can then trigger responses such as notifications or actions like sending an SNMP trap. This type of rule is well-suited for scenarios where you need to monitor for patterns or rates of events, such as excessive firewall denies, and take action when these exceed defined thresholds.
Offense rules can analyze both event and flow data, making them highly versatile for comprehensive security monitoring.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which two statements are true about the vSRX? (Choose two.)
- A. It does not have VMXNET3 vNIC support.
- B. Linux is the base OS.
- C. It has VMXNET3 vNIC support.
- D. UNIX is the base OS.
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION # 31
Your manager asks you to provide firewall and NAT services in a private cloud.
Which two solutions will fulfill the minimum requirements for this deployment? (Choose two.)
- A. a single cSRX
- B. a cSRX for firewall services and a separate cSRX for NAT services
- C. a single vSRX
- D. a vSRX for firewall services and a separate vSRX for NAT services
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A single vSRX instance is capable of handling both firewall and NAT services simultaneously. This solution provides a streamlined and resource-efficient way to secure and manage network traffic within a private cloud environment.
Similar to the vSRX, a single cSRX can also provide both firewall and NAT services. The cSRX, being a containerized version of the SRX, is particularly suited for environments where high density and microservices architectures are used, offering high performance in a compact form factor.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which method does the loT Security feature use to identify traffic sourced from IoT devices?
- A. The SRX Series device streams transit traffic received from the IoT device to Juniper ATP Cloud.
- B. The SRX Series device identifies loT devices using their MAC address.
- C. The SRX Series device identifies loT devices from metadata extracted from their transit traffic.
- D. The SRX Series device streams metadata from the loT device transit traffic to Juniper ATP Cloud Juniper ATP Cloud.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The metadata is used to identify the type of device, its associated activities and its threat profile. This information is used to determine the appropriate security policy for the device. For more information on loT Security, please refer to the Juniper Security, Specialist (JNCIS-SEC) study guide.
NEW QUESTION # 33
You want to show tabular data for operational mode commands.
In this scenario, which logging parameter will provide this function?
- A. session-close
- B. permit
- C. count
- D. session-init
Answer: C
Explanation:
The logging parameter that will provide the function of showing tabular data for operational mode commands is count. The count parameter displays the number of packets and bytes that match a security policy and the action taken by the policy. The count parameter can be used with the show security policies hit-count command to display the policy counters in a tabular format. The count parameter can also be used with the show security flow session command to display the session counters in a tabular format. Reference: = show security policies hit-count, show security flow session
NEW QUESTION # 34
You are asked to determine how much traffic a popular gaming application is generating on your network.
Which action will you perform to accomplish this task?
- A. Enable AppQoS on the proper security zones
- B. Enable AppTrack on the proper security zones.
- C. Enable screen options on the proper security zones
- D. Enable APBR on the proper security zones
Answer: B
Explanation:
AppTrack is a feature of Juniper Networks firewall solutions that allows administrators to track applications, users, and the amount of traffic generated by those applications on the network. AppTrack can be enabled on specific security zones of the network to monitor traffic on those zones. This feature can be used to determine how much traffic a popular gaming application isgenerating on the network.
For more information, please refer to the Juniper Networks JNCIS-SEC Study Guide.
NEW QUESTION # 35
You want to control when cluster failovers occur.
In this scenario, which two specific parameters would you configure on an SRX Series device? (Choose two.)
- A. heartbeat-address
- B. heartbeat-cos
- C. heartbeat-threshold
- D. heartbeat-interval
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
To control when cluster failovers occur, you need to configure two specific parameters on an SRX Series device: heartbeat-interval and heartbeat-threshold. These parameters determine how often the nodes in a cluster exchange heartbeat messages and how many consecutive heartbeats can be missed before a failover is triggered. The heartbeat-interval specifies the time interval in seconds between each heartbeat message. The default value is 1 second and the range is from 0.1 to 10 seconds. The heartbeat- threshold specifies the number of consecutive heartbeats that must be missed before a failover occurs.
The default value is 3 and the range is from 2 to 255.
Reference: = Configuring Chassis Clustering on SRX Series Devices, Chassis Cluster Redundancy Group Failover
NEW QUESTION # 36
When a security policy is deleted, which statement is correct about the default behavior of active sessions allowed by that policy?
- A. The active sessions allowed by the policy will be reevaluated by the cached
- B. The active sessions allowed by the policy will continue
- C. The active sessions allowed by the policy will be dropped.
- D. The active sessions allowed by the policy will be marked as a legacy flow and will continue to be forwarded.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When a security policy is deleted, the existing sessions that were previously allowed by that policy are not immediately dropped; instead, they are typically treated as legacy flows. This means they are allowed to continue until they naturally end or until the session timeout is reached. This behavior ensures that deleting a policy does not abruptly disrupt ongoing traffic flows that were previously authorized by that policy. This approach helps in avoiding unintended service disruptions, especially in production environments where active connections may be critical to operations.
NEW QUESTION # 37
You are asked to ensure that if the session table on your SRX Series device gets close to exhausting its resources, that you enforce a more aggress.ve age-out of existing flows.
In this scenario, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
- A. The high-watermark configuration specifies the percentage of how much of the session table can be allocated before applying a more aggressive age-out timer
- B. The early-ageout configuration specifies the timeout value, in seconds, that will be applied once the low-watermark value is met.
- C. The early-ageout configuration specifies the timeout value, in seconds, that will be applied once the high-watermark value is met.
- D. The high-watermark configuration specifies the percentage of how much of the session table is left before disabling a more aggressive age- out timer.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The early-ageout configuration specifies the timeout value, in seconds, that will be applied once the high- watermark value is met. The high-watermark configuration specifies the percentage of how much of the session table can be allocated before applying a more aggressive age-out timer. This ensures that the session table does not become full and cause traffic issues, and also ensures that existing flows are aged out quickly when the table begins to get close to being full.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Exhibit
You are asked to track BitTorrent traffic on your network. You need to automatically add the workstations to the High_Risk_Workstations feed and the servers to the BitTorrent_Servers feed automatically to help mitigate future threats.
Which two commands would add this functionality to the FindThreat policy? (Choose two.)
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION # 39
Exhibit
Using the information from the exhibit, which statement is correct?
- A. Redundancy group 1 is in an ineligible state.
- B. Redundancy group 0 is in an ineligible state.
- C. Node1 is the active node for the control plane
- D. There are no issues with the cluster.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 40
Exhibit
When trying to set up a server protection SSL proxy, you receive the error shown.
What are two reasons for this error? (Choose two.)
- A. The SSL proxy certificate ID does not exist.
- B. The SSL proxy certificate ID is part of a blocklist.
- C. The SSL proxy certificate ID does not have the correct renegotiation option set.
- D. The SSL proxy certificate ID is for a forwarding proxy.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The error message shown in the exhibit regarding the SSL proxy setup indicates an issue with the type of server certificate being used. The error explicitly states, "Unsupported cert type of server certid." Here are two plausible reasons for this error based on the options provided:
Option B. The SSL proxy certificate ID does not have the correct renegotiation option set.
This option points to a configuration issue related to the properties or capabilities of the certificate, such as renegotiation, which if not set correctly according to the expected requirements of the SSL proxy, might lead to the certificate being unsupported. Renegotiation settings are critical in ensuring secure connections, and mismatches in configuration can result in errors.
Option D. The SSL proxy certificate ID does not exist.
If the certificate ID being referred to in the SSL proxy profile does not exist in the device's certificate store or is incorrectly referenced, the system will be unable to apply the configuration, leading to an error during the commit operation. This situation would typically result in an error indicating that the system can't find or recognize the specified certificate ID.
NEW QUESTION # 41
You are asked to find systems running applications that increase the risks on your network. You must ensure these systems are processed through IPS and Juniper ATP Cloud for malware and virus protection.
Which Juniper Networks solution will accomplish this task?
- A. JIMS
- B. Adaptive Threat Profiling
- C. UTM
- D. Encrypted Traffic Insights
Answer: B
Explanation:
Adaptive Threat Profiling (ATP) is a Juniper Networks solution that enables organizations to detect malicious activity on their networks and process it through IPS and Juniper ATP Cloud for malware and virus protection. ATP is powered by Juniper's advanced Machine Learning and Artificial Intelligence (AI) capabilities, allowing it to detect and block malicious activity in real-time. ATP is integrated with Juniper's Unified Threat Management (UTM) and Encrypted Traffic Insights (ETI) solutions, providing an end-to- end network protection solution.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which two statements are true about Juniper ATP Cloud? (Choose two.)
- A. If the cache lookup determines that a file contains malware, static analysis is not performed to verify the results.
- B. If the cache lookup determines that a file contains malware, performed to verify the results.
- C. Dynamic analysis is not always necessary to determine if a file contains malware.
- D. Dynamic analysis is always performed to determine if a file contains malware.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Dynamic analysis is not always necessary to determine if a file contains malware, as the ATP Cloud uses a cache lookup to quickly identify known malicious files. If the cache lookup determines that a file contains malware, static analysis is not performed to verify the results. This information can be found on the Juniper website here: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/release- independent/security/jnpr-security-srx-series/inform
NEW QUESTION # 43
You are configuring logging for a security policy.
In this scenario, in which two situations would log entries be generated? (Choose two.)
- A. at session close
- B. every 60 seconds
- C. every 10 minutes
- D. at session initialization
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Log entries would be generated in two situations: at session initialization and at session close. At session initialization, the log entry would include details about the connection, such as the source and destination IP addresses, the service being used, and the action taken by the security policy. At session close, the log entry would include details about the connection, such as the duration of the session, the bytes sent/received, and the action taken by the security policy. For more information, you can refer to the Juniper Security documentation at
https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/reference/configuration-statement/security- log-co
NEW QUESTION # 44
Exhibit
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
- A. The IP address of the authenticating domain controller is 172.25.11.140.
- B. Nancy logged in to the juniper.net Active Directory domain.
- C. The IP address of Nancy's client PC is 172.25.11.
- D. Nancy is a member of the Active Directory sales group.
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 45
You want to deploy a virtualized SRX in your environment.
In this scenario, why would you use a vSRX instead of a cSRX? (Choose two.)
- A. The vSRX supports Layer 2 and Layer 3 configurations.
- B. The vSRX has faster boot times.
- C. Only the vSRX provides NAT, IPS, and UTM services
- D. Only the vSRX provides clustering.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
vSRX provides flexible networking capabilities which include support for both Layer 2 (data link) and Layer 3 (network) configurations. This allows it to handle a variety of routing and switching tasks within virtual environments.
Clustering capability, which involves grouping multiple vSRX instances to operate as a single entity for redundancy and high availability, is a feature specific to vSRX. This is critical in environments where continuous uptime and resilience are required.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Regarding static attack object groups, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
- A. Matching attack objects are automatically added to a custom group.
- B. You must manually add matching attack objects to a custom group.
- C. Group membership does not automatically change when Juniper updates the IPS signature database.
- D. Group membership automatically changes when Juniper updates the IPS signature database.
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which two statements are correct about App Track? (Choose two.)
- A. App Track can only be configured in the main logical system on an SRX Series device.
- B. App Track collects traffic flow information including byte, packet, and duration statistics.
- C. App Track can be configured for any defined logical system on an SRX Series device.
- D. App Track identifies and blocks traffic flows that might be malicious regardless of the ports being used.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
AppTrack is a feature that allows you to monitor and analyze the application traffic on your SRX Series device. It can be configured for any defined logical system, which is a virtual router or switch within a physical device. AppTrack collects statistics such as bytes, packets, and duration for each application flow and displays them in reports or logs. AppTrack does not identify or block malicious traffic, that is the function of AppSecure or IDP/IPS. Reference: = JNCIS-SEC Certification, Open Learning - Security, Specialist (JNCIS-SEC), Application Security Theory
NEW QUESTION # 48
......
JN0-336 dumps Free Test Engine Verified By It Certified Experts: https://exams4sure.pdftorrent.com/JN0-336-latest-dumps.html